I showed that a potential of the formV=-(k/r)-(B/r 2 ) results in a precesing el
ID: 1761130 • Letter: I
Question
I showed that a potential of the formV=-(k/r)-(B/r2) results in a precesing elliptical orbit.The question is, when we reduce the (non-perturbed) Keplerpotential to a 1D problem we get a1/r2 (centrifugal barrier)term so why is theperturbation term causes precession while the barrier doesnot? This is pretty much the same question as Goldstein 3rd editonProblem 3.22 (except for the sign, though the reason must be thesame). The solution posted here to that problem is for adifferent edition (2nd I think) so the problem posted(or linked) is totally unrelated. I showed that a potential of the formV=-(k/r)-(B/r2) results in a precesing elliptical orbit.The question is, when we reduce the (non-perturbed) Keplerpotential to a 1D problem we get a1/r2 (centrifugal barrier)term so why is theperturbation term causes precession while the barrier doesnot? This is pretty much the same question as Goldstein 3rd editonProblem 3.22 (except for the sign, though the reason must be thesame). The solution posted here to that problem is for adifferent edition (2nd I think) so the problem posted(or linked) is totally unrelated.Explanation / Answer
The effective potential that appears in one dimensional is originalpotential plus a centrifugal potential.The centrifugal potential1/r2 causes a potential barrier.