In the Fung (2009) paper, the Relative Risks of CHD (Table 3) and strokes (Table
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Question
In the Fung (2009) paper, the Relative Risks of CHD (Table 3) and strokes (Table 4) for groups Q2, Q3, Q4, and Q5 are compared with the risk in Q1 (don't worry about the details of what Q1-Q5 represent for now; we'll discuss that in the next module). Look at the lines labeled "Age and energy adjusted". The numbers before the parenthesis are the RR. Why is "1" always the value for Q1? What do you notice about the values for Q2-Q5? What does this mean about the risk for CHD and stroke for these groups?
Link to full article: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2724471/
Table 3 Relative risks of CHD by quintiles of aMED score Q4 P trend Average mean score (range) TOTAL CHD Cases Person years Age & energy adjusted 1 1.8 (0- 3.1 (2.5-3.4)4.0 (3.5-4.4) 4.9 (4.5-5.4) 6.3 (5.5-9.0) 2.5) 528 518 466 474 405 271,209 285,181 276,345 274,812 293,382 0.81 (0.72 0.92) 0.92 (0.82 1.04) 0.71 (0.63-0.66 (0.58-0.50 (0.43-Explanation / Answer
For the Age & energy adjusted, the value for group Q1 is taken "1" as reference for the purpose to compare the other group's RR ( Relative Risk} of CHD and stroke. From the Age & energy adjusted row we can see that the relative risk for the groups Q2, Q3, Q4 and Q5 are as follow
From table 3,
From table 4,
Relative risks of CHD by quintiles of aMED score Q1 1 Q2 0.81 81% RR=>19% less compared to Q1 Q3 0.71 71% RR=>29% less compared to Q1 Q4 0.66 66% RR=>34% less compared to Q1 Q5 0.5 50% RR=>50% less compared to Q1